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Prof. (Dr.) M. V. Pylee Former Vice-Chancellor, University of Cochin
Abolition of Titles Article 18
In the creation of a society which aims at establishing political, social and economic
equality and thereby aspires to become truly democratic, there is no room for some
individuals to hold titles, thus creating artificial distinctions among members of the
same society. Recognition of tides and the consequent creation of a hierarchy of
aristocracy had been denounced as an anti-democratic practice as early as the eighteenth
century by both the American and the French Revolutions. A democracy should not create
titles and titular glories. In India, the practice of the British Government conferring
a number of titles every year, mostly on their political supporters and Government
officers, had already created a peculiar class of nobility among the people totally
loyal to the foreign rulers. It was difficult, in principle, for Independent India to
recognise and accept these titles apart from considerations of the merit of those who
held them. Article 18, therefore, abolishes all titles and the State is prohibited from
conferring titles on any person. The only exception made to the strict rule of
non-recognition of titles is provided in favour of academic or military distinctions.
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar explained in the Constituent Assembly that Article 18 did not create
a justiciable right : The non-acceptance of titles is a condition of continued
citizenship. It is not a right, it is a duty imposed upon the individual that if he
continues to be the citizen of this country, then he must abide by certain conditions.
One of the conditions is that he must not accept a title. If he did, it would be open for
Parliament to decide by law what should be done to persons who violate the provisions of
this Article. One of the penalties may be that he may lose the right of citizenship.
Thus, under Article 18, not only is the State in India prevented from conferring titles
on any person, but Indian citizens are alsb forbidden to accept any title from a foreign
State without the consent of the President of India. The prohibition applies not only to
the acceptance of titles but also to that of any presents, emoluments or office of any
kind from any foreign
Fundamental Rights State by any person holding an office of profit or trust under the
State. The battle against the titles conferred by the British Monarch started with the
passing of the United States Constitution in 1787, which prohibited all titles of nobility
in the United States. Another British dependency, Ireland, on establishing its
independence, followed suit and its Constitution, too, prohibits the conferring of tides
by the State. India and Myanmar (formerly Burma) were the next to follow the example,
especially India, despite the fact that it decided to continue to be a member of the
Commonwealth of Nations whose titular head is the British Monarch.
Right to Freedom Article 19
Article 19 enumerates certain positive rights conferred by the Constitution in order to
provide the ideal of liberty promised in the Preamble. However, absolute individual rights
cannot be guaranteed by any modern State. Articles 19 to 22 deal with different aspects
of this basic right. Taken together, these four Articles forma charter of personal
liberties, which provides the backbone of the chapter on Fundamental Rights.
Six freedoms under the Constitution are guaranteed to all citizens conferring upon the
State power to impose, by law, reasonable restrictions in the larger interests of the
community. These are : (1) Freedom of speech and expression; (2) Freedom to assemble
peaceably and without arms; (3) Freedom to form associations or unions; (4) Freedom to
move freely throughout the territory of India; (5) Freedom to reside and settle in any
part of the territory of India; and (6) Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry
on any occupation, trade or business. It is impossible to exaggerate the importance of
these freedoms in any democratic society. Indeed, the very test of a democratic society
is the extent to which these freedoms are enjoyed by the citizens in general. These
freedoms, as a whole, constitute the liberty of the individual. And liberty is one of the
most essential ingredients of human happiness and progress. The most important among
the inalienable rights of man, according to the Declaration of American Independence,
are life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness. The Preamble of almost every
Constitution declares the same in one form or the other as its objectives. The Preamble
of the Constitution of the United States, for instance, declares that one of its
objectives is to secure the blessings of liberty to ourselves and to our posterity.
The Preamble of the Indian Consptution, too, proclaims that one of its objectives is to
secure Liberty—Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
Freedom of the Press Article 19 (1) (a)
There had been much criticism, both within the Constituent Assembly and outside, of the
omission of a specific reference to the Freedom of the Press and the failure to guarantee
it along with the freedom of speech. The omission was considered a serious lapse on the
part of the Drafting Committee by the protagonists of a Free Press as a separate right.
Nevertheless, the Drafting Committee did not think it necessary to incorporate a separate
right of this nature in the Chapter on Fundamental Rights. Speaking on behalf of the
Committee, Dr. B. R. Ambedkar said, The Press has no special rights which are not to be
given or which are not to be exercised by the citizen in his individual capacity. The
editor of a newspaper or the manager of a Press are all citizens and, therefore, when they
choose to write in newspapers, they are merely exercising their right of expression and in
my judgement, therefore, no special mention is necessary of the freedom of the Press at
all. Freedom of speech and expression are basic to the functioning of a democratic system.
The word expression that is used in Article 19(1)(a), in addition to speech,
is comprehensive enough to cover the Press. In fact, the lack of specific mention of the
Press in the Constitution created no difficulty when the Supreme Court was called upon to
protect the freedom of the Press in cases which came before it. Further, modern science
and technology have invented, and are still inventing and bringing into use, many forms
of expression through which communication of ideas is facilitated. The
radio, the cinema, the telephone and the television are a few important examples of these
new forms. Some of these may, in the course of time, become even more powerful and
important media of expression than the Press itself. Freedom of expression assists in
the discovery of trust and strengthens an individuals potential for taking part in
decision-making. Freedom of the Press implies freedom from interference from authority
leading to a suppression of views or news which have an adverse effect on circulation.
Freedom of the Press would be protected by the courts, as has been pointed out in many
judgements.
Right to Assembly Article 19(1)(b), and 19(3)
One of the basic safeguards to freedom of speech is the right to assemble freely. In fact,
freedom of assembly and freedom of speech go hand in hand. The framers of the Constitution
knew that the right to assemble peaceably for public debate and discussion, for political
activities and such other purposes was essential to make the freedom of speech and
expression real. Hence, the Constitutional guarantee to assemble peaceably and without
arms has been provided. The right to assembly can be restricted only in the interest of
public order, and the restrictions ought to be reasonable.
Right to Form Associations or Unions Article 19(1)(c) and 19(4)
The right to form associations or unions is more or less a charter for all working people
in this country. Trade union activity was not only discouraged by most of the Western
countries until recently, but in many countries it was even looked upon as an anti-social
and anti-State activity. Workers had to undergo great suffering before they could obtain
even the elementary right that virtually affected their existence as a separate group or
class in society. It was only in the twentieth century, particularly after the end of the
First World War, that any significant measures were undertaken to ensure the legitimate
rights of workers through labour and industrial legislation. To make these rights
fundamental and embody them as such in the Constitution-was indeed a much bolder step
forward. After recognising the trend of the times, the Constitution of India has made
the workers right to form unions a fundamental one. The right to form associations or
unions can be restricted only in the interest of public order or morality. There can be
no association or union for an illegal or conspiratorial purpose. Nor can there be an
association to further immorality. The right to form associations or unions, however,
is not available to every citizen in the same measure. A member of the
public services, although he is a citizen, cannot claim the right to the extent that a
private citizen can. Being a Government servant, he is bound by his service rules and he
cannot challenge his service rules on the ground that they stand in his way of fully
enjoying the right to form associations. This has been made clear by the Supreme Court.
Right to Free Movement and Residence Article 19(1)(d), (e) and 19(5)
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India and to reside and settle in
any part of it are guaranteed under Sub-clauses (d) and (e), respectively, of Clause (1)
ofArticle 19. The importance of the freedom of movement cannot be exaggerated. In fact,
the enjoyment of the freedom guaranteed under the other rights depends largely on the
freedom of movement, unhampered and uncircumscribed. The States power to place reasonable
restrictions on these freedoms is limited to two: the interests of the general public
and the protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe. For instance, it is in the
interest of the general public to restrict the free movement of a person suffering from a
contagious disease. Similarly, the Scheduled Tribes form separate communities by
themselves, backward and unsophisticated, with separate cultural and property interests.
Although complete segregation of the tribal people in the name of their separate culture
and general backwardness is wrong, and against the ultimate aim of complitte national
integration, certain safeguards; as envisaged here, seem to be justified. Otherwise,
the tribal people may become easy victims of exploitation at the hands of their more
civilised, shrewd and designing brethren. Hence, there are various provisions to
safeguard the rights of tribals to their land and property. In their own interest and
for their benefit, laws may be made restricting the ordinary citizens to go and settle
in particular areas inhabited by the tribal people or acquire property there. The
reference to the interests of the Scheduled Tribes makes it clear that the free movement,
spoken of in the clause, relates not to general rights of locomotion but to the particular
right of shifting or moving from one part of the Indian territory to another without any
sort of discriminatory barriers.
Freedom of Profession, Occupation, Trade or Business Article 19(1)(g) and 19(6)
Article 19(1)(g) guarantees the freedom to practise any profession or to carry on any
occupation, trade or business. Doubts
ry
were expressed in the Constituent Assembly whether these were Fundamental Rights at all or
not. Perhaps, the only other Constitutions which have given them the status of Fundamental
Rights are those of Ireland and Switzerland. It seems that the framers of the Indian
Constitution had been influenced by the complex social system that prevailed in India in
seeking to guarantee rights such as these. It has been a bane of Indias social life that
professions were inherited rather than acquired. A society dominated by caste and
professions based upon caste or region has little to offer for the building up of a
community enlivened by social mobility and dynamism. Such a society is often intolerant
to persons who change the traditional profession of their ancestors and is eager to
maintain a petrified social order. A Constitutional guarantee of the right to take up the
profession, calling, trade or business of ones choice is indeed a significant aid to the
building up of a dynamic and democratic society. The framers of the ConstitCition have
done well to incorporate these rights in the chapter on Fundamental Rights and have,
thereby, helped the evolution of a truly democratic society. The States power to restrict
the enjoyment of these freedoms is limited to the making of any law imposing reasonable
restrictions in the interests of the general public in so far as it relates to: (a) the
prescribing of professional or technical qualifications necessary for practising any
profession or carrying on any occupation, trade or business, or (b) the carrying on by the
State or by a corporation owned or controlled by the State, of any trade, business,
industry or service.
Safeguard in Respect of Conviction for Offences Article 20
Article 20 affords protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to any person who
commits an offence. There are four such guaranteed protections: (1) A person can be
convicted of an offence only if he has violated a law in force at the time when he is
alleged to have committed the offence. (2) No person can be subjected to a greater
penalty than what might have been given to him under the law that was prevalent when he
committed the offence. (3) No person can be prosecuted and punished for the same offence
more than once. (4) No person accused of an offence can be compelled to be a witness
against himself. Taken together, these provisions guard against retrospective application
of a punitive law and double punishment for the same offence. These are, indeed,
guarantees of great importance which establish the primacy of law over the passions of
man.
Staff Selection Commission Central Police Organisations Exam 2014 Question Paper
(Fully Solved)
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
Directions (Qs. 1 to 7) : In these questions select the related word/
letters/number/figure from the given alternatives. : ? (B) 15 (D) 19 (A) 9 : 85
(B) 6 : 37 (C) 7 : 45 (D) 8 : 63 3. Question figures :
1. 33 : 10 : : 54 (A) 21 (C) 17 2. 10 : 99 : : ?
<)<=.4â– : roe-) ?
Answer figures :
(A) (B) (C) (D) 4. Soil : Erosion : : Forest : ? (A) Deforestation (B) Pollution
(C) Degradation (D) Dense 5. Plane: Hangar : : Car : ? (A) Brake (B) Road (C) Garage
(D) Tyre 6. BDAC : FHEG : : NPMO : (A) SQRT (B) RTQS (C) QTRS (D) RQTS 7. BOMBAY :
CNNABX : : ? : DMMBLY (A) CNLCKZ (B) CNCLBZ (C) CNLCAZ (D) CNLCBX 8. How many As are
there in the following letter series which are immediately followed by B as well as
immediately preceded by Z ? AMBZANAAB (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2 9. In the following question,
number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters is increased by one. Which of the
following letter series observes the rule ? (A) CDEHGFI (B) KILMOPQ (C) NOPRQST
(D) BEINTAI Directions (Qs. 10 to 14) : In these questions, these find the odd word/
number/number pair/figure from the given alternatives.
10.
20. Question figures :
(A) (B) (C) 11. (A) Parallelogram (B) Triangle (C) Pyramid (D) Rhombus 12. (A) Fawning
(B) Outspoken (C) Cringing (D) Servile 13. (A) 120 (B) 289 (C) 196 (D) 169 14. (A)
(69-14) (B) (97-16) (C) (78-15) (D) (58-13) 15. Arrange the following words as per order
in the dictionary : 1. Admire 2. Addition 3. Addict 4. Admission 5. Adult (A) 2, 3, 1,
5, 4 (B) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 (C) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 (D) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3 16. Which one set of letters
when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
ab_d_aaba_na_badna_badna (A) dbanb (B) babda (C) andaa (D) badna 17. Which one of the
given responses would be a meaningful order of the following ? 1. Artists 2. Practice
3. Script 4. Feedback 5. Drama (A) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 (C) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
(D) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 Directions (Qs. 18 to 21) : In these questions, a series is given with
the term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete
the series. 18. 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 13, ? (A) 16 (B) 12 (C) 15 14 19. 22, 31, 42,
55, ? , 87 (A) 68 (B) 64 (C) 70 (D) 72
(D)
Answer figures :
--> r --+ (A) (B) (C) (D) 21. BCB, DED, ? (A) HJ H (B) JFIJ (C) IJI (D) JKJ 22. A and B
are brothers. C and D are sisters. As son is Ds brother. How is B related to C? (A) Son
(B) Father (C) Brother (D) Uncle 23. Six of my colleagues are sitting on the first row in
this group photograph. Krishna is to the left of Kumar and to the right of Samy. Vaani
is in between Sheela and Kumar. Where is Saroj sitting? (A) In between Vaani and Sheela
(B) To the right of Samy (C) To the left of Samy (D) In between Samy and Krishna
24. From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters
given in the word. KNOWLEDGE (A) GOLDEN (B) KNOWN (C) GODOWN (D) WONDER 25.
The present
ages of three friends are in the proportions 6 : 7 : 8. Five years ago, the sum of their
ages was 48 years. Find out their present ages in years. (A) 12, 14, 16 (B) 24, 28, 32
(C) 18, 21, 24 (D) 30, 35, 40 26. Find the missing number from the given responses
9
(A) 108 (C) 64
(B) 128 (D) 72
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, MAY 2015 issue page no 117
27. If + stands for `division; X stands for addition; stands for `multiplication;
stands for `subtraction, which of the following equations is correct ? (A) 5+3x2+4-8=4
(B) 5-3+2x4+8=2 (C) 5x3+2-4x8=19 (D) 5+3x2-4+8=8 28. From the given alternatives select
the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. RECAPITULATION
(A) PICTURE (B) CAPTURE (C) TABULATION (D) RELATION 29. In a certain code language,
S1113,57.17P7JDN orrieztew.Est ITSBUSNOITUT. Then how is DISTRIBUTION written in that
code ? (A) IRIDISNOIUTB (B) IRTSIDNOITUB (C) IRTDISNOITUB (D) IRTSIDNOIBUT 30. If in a
certain code language, ENTRY is coded as 12345 and STEADY is coded as 931785, then state
which is the correct code for ARREST ? (A) 745194 (B) 744589 (C) 744193 (D) 166479
31. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace signs and to balance
the following equation : 5 9 3 6 8 (A) +x,r. (B) x+=x (C) x— = x (D) +4--= 32.
Some equations are solved on the basis of a cretain system. Find the correct answer for
the unsolved equation on that basis. 4x5=42, 5 x 6 =56 6x7=72, 7x8=? (A) 102 (B) 84 (C) 90
(D) 92 Directions (Qs. 33 & 34) : In these questions, select the missing number from the
given responses. 33.
(A) 74 (B) 121 (C) 82 (D) 131 34. 81 625 2401 3 5 7 27 125 ? 105 745 2737 (A) 343 (B) 287
(C) 336 (D) 385 35. Rahim rode on his bicycle from his house towards the market for
300 m. He was moving south-west. Then he turned left at an angle of 135° and rode
for 100 m to visit a friend. In which direction is Rahims house located from his
friends
house? (A) South (B) North (C) East (D) West 36. Identify the diagram that best
represents the relationship among the classes givne below : Females, Sisters, Teachers
CM 0 0 0
(A) (B) (C) (D) 37: A postrner Aka) deliernig letters 3 km southwards and then turns right.
He covers 4 km on this road and again turns right. He delivers letters for 3 km and
completes his daily beat. Then, he turns left for lunch at home, which is 5 km away.
How far has he to travel to reach the post-office after lunch ? (A) 8 km (B) 15 km
(C) 10 km (D) 9 km 38. Find out the number of triangles in the given figure.
(A) 48 or more (B) 34 (C) 38 (D) 44 39. Four positions of a dice are given below.
Identify the number at the bottom when the number on the top is 2.
ei ei) kti
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4 40. In the given figure, the circle stands for intelligent,
square for hard-working, triangle for post-graduate and the rectangle for loyal employees.
Study the figure and select the number which represents post-graduate employees who are
hard-working and intelligent but not loyal.
(A) 9 (B) 12 (C) 11 (D) 10 Directions (Qs. 41 & 42) : In these questions, some
statements/questions are given followed by three/four (I, II, III, IV)
conclusions/arguments respectively. You have to consider the statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which
of the given conclusions/arguments, if any, follow from the given statements/ questions.
41. Statements : Some hills are rivers. Some rivers are deserts. All clouts are Itatjfir
Conclusions : I. Some roads are rivers. II. Some roads are hills. III. Some deserts are
hills. (A) None follows (B) Only conclusion I follows (C) Only conclusions I an4,
II follow (D) Only conclusions II and III follow 42. Question : Should the common
entrance examinations for admission into professional courses be abolished ? Arguments
: I. Yes, it saves a lot of money. II. Yes, many candidates who have scored well in the
qualifying examination do not perform equally well in the entrance examinations. III.
Yes, the rural candidates cannot perfrom well in the common entrance examinations. IV.
No, the marks awarded in the qualifying examinations of different boards or universities
are not uniform and comparable. (A) Only argument IV is not valid (B) Only argument I is
strong (C) Either argument II or III is strong (D) Only argument IV is strong 43. A piece
of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer
figures, indicate how it will appear when opened. Questions figures :
I I (E-R
Answer figures :
o : o a <1 I> i vav
(A) (B) (C) (D) 44. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures
is the right image of the ven figure ?
118
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, MAY 2015
Question figure :
N Answer figures :
NOICN
1,/1013A
VOINR NOIP3i1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 45. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?
Question figure :
4
4#.46
am.
(A) (B) (C) (D) 46. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question
figure is hidden/embedded. Question figure :
Answer figures :
(A) (B)
(C) (D) 47. Given below are numbers in the first line and symbols in the second line.
Numbers and symbols are codes for each other. Choose the correct code for given symbols.
1 2 3 4 3 6 7 8 9 Given :Q < (A) 94846 (B) 91486 (C) 91846 (D) 94816 48. An address has
been given below, which has been reproduced against A, B, C and D alternatives. Three of
these have some mistake or the other. Identify the one without any mistake. Fujitsu
Technology Solutions Ltd. The Boulevard, Cain Road, Bracknell, Berkshire, United Kingdom
RG12 1HH
(A) Fujitsu Technology Solutions Ltd. The Boulevard, Cain Road, Bracknell, Berkshire,
United Kingdom RG12 1HH Fujitsu Technology Solutions Ltd. The Boulevard, Cain Road,
Bracknell, Berkshire, United Kingdom RG12 1HH (C) Fujtsu Technology Solutions Ltd.
The Boulevard, Caiin Road, Bracknel, Berkshire, United Kingdom RG12 1HH. (D) Fujitsu
Technology Solutions Ltd. The Boulvard, Cain Road, Bracknell, Berkshir, United Kingdom
RG12 1HH 49. A passenger in a train is very upset because there is a mix-up with her
train ticket reservation. You would (A) get irritated with her. (B) tell her how to avoid
mistakes. (C) tell how you booked your ticket. (D) try to calm her down. 50. A set of
letters is repersented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets
as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4
and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be
represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. G can be represented by 04,
11, 42, etc., and P can be represented by 68, 75, 99, etc. Similarly, you have to
identify the number set for the set of letters given below : NGAT Matrix I
(B)
Matrix II
(A) 86, 23, 57, 20(B) 55, 04, 78, 01 (C) 67, 43, 58, 32 (D) 79, 30, 89, 44
ANSWERS
1. (C) : 10 -= 3 Similarly 54-3
33-3
17 — 3 2. (D): 99 --> 102 — 1 Similarly
63 82 — 1. 3. (B) : 4. (A) 5. (C) : Plane is parked in Hangar and car is parked in Garage.
6. (B) : Each letter moves + 4 steps. 7. (A) : Letters move + 1 and — 1 step alternatively.
8. (A) 10. (B) : All others are irregular figures. 11. (C) : All others are two
dimensional figures.
9. (D)
12. (B) 13. (A) : All others are perfect squares. 14. (A) : In all others the second
number is equal to sum of the digits of first number. 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18.
(D): The sequence is + 1, + 2, alternatively. / 19. (C) : The sequence is + 9, + 11,
+13,+15,+17 55 + 15 --> 70 20. (A) 21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (C) : Sum of
present ages of three friends = 48 + 15 = 63 years Hence their ages are : 18, 21,
24 years 26. (C) 36 --> 62 216 --> 63 64—> 82 512 —> 83 Similarly 16 —> 42 64 —> 43 27.
(C) : 5 x 3 +2-4 x 8= 19 With proper symbols 5 + 3 + 2 x 4 + 8 = 19 5+ —3 x
4 + 8 = 19 2 5 + 6 + 8 = 19 28. (C) There is no B in the given word.
29. (B) : SUBSTI TUTION ITSBUS NOITUT Similarly DISTRI BUTION IRTSID NOITUB 30.
(C) : E —> 1, N —> 2, T --> 3, R —> 4, Y --> 5, S --> 9, T --> 3, A --> 7, D --> 8
ARREST -3 744193 31. (B) : 5 x 9 + 3 = 6 x 8
32. (C) : 4 x 5 -> 7 X 6 = 42 5 x 6 --> 8 x 7 = 56 6 x 7 --> 9 x 8 = 72 7 x 8 -> 10 x 9
= 90
(First number + 3, second number + 1). 33. (D): The number in the centre is the sum of
multiplication of pairs of two numbers diagonally opposite 6 x 9+ 11 x 7= 131 34.
(A): In each column the first number is product of second and third number 2401 ?
- 7 - 343 Also last number is sum of first and third number minus the second number.
35. (A) :
House
100 m Friends House
36. (A)
N
S
3 km
38. (A) 39. (C) 1, 3, 4 and 6 are neighbours of 5. Hence 2 is opposite 5. 40. (C) 41.
(B) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (B) : 91486 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (D)
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND GENERAL AWARENESS /
51. Belief in equality of income and wealth is called (A) Capitalism (B) Equalitarianism
(C) Altruism (D) Socialism 52. Down payment is a deposit in connection with
(A) a domestic retail transaction (B) an international currency transaction (C) a
domestic wholesale transaction (D) a hire-purchase transaction 53. Deficit financing in
India-in the proper sense of fiscal deficit-was mainly adopted to enable the Government
of India to obtain necessary resources for (A) increasing the stock of real resources
(B) repaying external loans (C) making domestic transfer payments (D) the Five-Year Plans
54. Latin America, Asia and Africa are jointly said to belong to the (A) developed world
(B) third world (C) first world (D) second world 55. In India, planting of fast-growing
trees along roadsides, canal banks and other such public lands for needs of the community
is done by (A) the Public Works Department • (B) the farmers (C) the communities (D) the
State forest departments 56. The Law officers who hold office at the pleasure of the
President are
(A) the Law Minister and any judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court (B) the Chief
Justice of the Supreme Court and the Attorney-General (C) the Attorney-General and the
Solicitor-Generals (D) the Attorney General and the Law Minister 57. Government can be
changed not by bullet, but by ballot. Who said this? (A) V.I. Lenin (B) E. Bernstein
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) K. Marx 58. Unicameral legislature is found in the (A) British
Parliament (B) National Peoples Congress of China (C) Diet of Japan (D) Congress of the
USA 59. Marx has taken the idea of `dialectics from (A) Bentham (B) Hegel (C) Engels
(D) Ricardo 60. Which of the following is wrong? (A) President can be removed by
impeachment. (B) President is head of the State. (C) President is elected by an electoral
college, consisting of elected members of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and Legislative
Assemblies of the State. (ID) President is the head of the Government. 61. The Swadeshi
Movement means (A) Use of Hindi in conversation (B) Shouting anti-British slogans
(C) Boycotting the foreign goods and using the Indian goods (D) Wearing a Khadi-cap
62. The Vice-President of India is (A) President of the Red Cross (B) Ex-Officio Chairman
of the Lok Sabha (C) Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
63. The two Houses of the Parliament of India enjoy co-equal powers in all . spheres
except I. Financial Matters II. Responsibility of the Council of Ministers III.
Amendment Procedure IV Election of President Which of the above are correct?
(A) I and II (B) III and IV (C) II, III and IV (D) I, II and III 64. At a joint
sitting of Parliament, a Bill has to be passed (A) by two-thirds majority of the
total numbers of members of both the Houses present and voting (B) by a simple
majority of the total number of members of both the Houses (C) by two-thirds majority
of the total number of members of both the Houses (D) by simple majority of the total
number of members of both the Houses present and voting 65. The First Session of the
Indian National Congressf was held at (A) Allahabad (B) Bombay (C) Calcutta (D) Madras
66. Who founded the Arya Samaj? (A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) Jyoti Rao Phule (C) Dayanand
Saraswati (D) Debendranath Tagore 67. The French failed to establish their power in India,
because (A) Pondicherry was not a straegic place (B) Dupleix was not a capable French
General (C) The English had a strong navy (D) The French were not liked by the Indians
68. Which of the following mines is rich in Gold reserves? (A) South Dakota (B) Pascua
Lama (C) Nevada (D) Johannesburg 69. The word Platinum is derived from language.
(A) Urdu (B) Spanish (C) Latin (D) Greek 70. The Battle of Plassey took place in the year
(A) 1707 (B) 1764 (C) 1765 (D) 1757 71. When the amount of Silver increases in Gold, the
colour turns to be (A) Grey (B) White (C) Pale yellow (D) Yellow 72. The type of
association between an alga and fungus, wherein the fungus has the upper hand is known as
(A) Helotism (B) Saprophytism (C) Parasitism (D) All of the above 73. Cohesion theory
was given by (A) Briggs and Shantz (B) Deovnis and Turpen (C) Dixon and Joly (D) None of
the above 74. The Special Economic Zones were promoted in the year (A) 2004 (B) 1998
(C) 2000 (D) 2002 75. Lahar is a natural disaster which is related to activity.
(A) Landslide (B) Climatic (C) Volcanic (D) Earthquake 76. The following phenomenon is
overcome by somatic hybridisation : (A) Organ differentiation (B) Sexual incompatibility
(C) Embryo sterility (D) Dormancy 77. Urinary bladder is absent in (A) Lizard (B) Pigeon
(C) Cat (D) Bat 78. The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of (A) 1 millimetre (B) 1
centimetre (C) 1 angstrom (D) 1 micron 79. The colour of a star is an indication of its
(A) temperature (B) size (C) distance from the Earth (D) weight
80. Wooden doors and windows do not close easily during rainy season due to
(A) Transpiration (B) Exosmosis (C) Imbibition (D) Endosmosis 81. The short cut to delete
a file permanently in Windows XP is (A) Del (B) Ctrl + Del (C) Shift + Del
(D) Alt + Del 82. Which of the following is not a computing divice? (A) Calculator
(B) Personal Digital Assistant (C) Notebook Computer (D) Digital Scanner 83. Which of
the following is a bleaching agent? (A) Carbon monoxide (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Hydrogen
peroxide (D) Nitrogen dioxide 84. The surface temperature of the Sun is about
(A) 10000° K (B) 2000° K (C) 4000° K (D) 6000° K 85. Two waves have same frequency,
but have amplitudes equal to A and 2A. These waves superpose each other in opposite phase.
The amplitude of the resultant wave is (A) 3A (B) Zero (C) A (D) 2A 86. An example of
two miscible liquids is (A) acetone and benzene (B) kerosene and water (C) kerosene and
acetone (D) acetone and water
87. Bacterial decomposition, of biological material under aerobic condition is
(A) Composting (B) Fermentation (C) Fertilisation (D) Contamination 88. Acid rain is
caused by (A) NO2 and 02 (B) CO and CO2 (C) SO2 and 02 (D) SO2 and NO2 89. Which of
the following is known as the metal of future? (A) Titanium (B) Iron (C) Copper
(D) Aluminium 90. Corrosion is a (A) displacement (B) reduction reaction (C) oxidation
reaction (D) redox reaction 91. The economy in which there is a mixture of public sector
and private sector, is called (A) Free-trade economy (B) Closed economy (C) Mixed economy
(D) Open economy
92. In which one of the following States is the Jaitpur Nuclear Plant being set up?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Gujarat (C) West Bengal (D) Rajasthan 93. Which among the following
is incorrectly matched? (A) July 18 : World Blood Donor Day (B) July 4 : American
Independence Day (C) First Saturday of July : International Day of Co-operatives
(D) July 11 : World Population Day 94. April 22 is celebrated every year as which of
the following days? (A) World Green Day (B) World Earth Day (C) World Health Day
(D) National Stress Awareness Day 95. Water diffusion into endodermis takes place through
(A) Suberized cells (B) Lignified cells (C) Casparian strips (D) Passage cells / 96.
Root pressure is due on (A) Increased transpiration (B) Active absorption (C) Passive
absorption (D) Increased turgidity 97. Which of the following sports-persons won the
highest Gold medals in Olympic history? (A) Michael Barrett (B) Michael Phelps (C) Usain
Bold (D) Roger Federer 98. Capital city of Egypt is (A) Cairo (B) Helsinki (C) Budapest
(D) Tehran 99. Which of the following sports-. persons has not won an Olympic medal?
(A) M.C. Mary Kom (B) Karnam Malleswari (C) P.T. Usha (D) Saina Nehwal 100. Which of
the following satellites helps to telecast T.V. network programmes, all over the country?
(A) INSAT-IB (B) Apple (C) Aryabhata (D) Rohini
ANSWERS
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (D) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B) 61.
(C) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (C) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (D) 71. (A) 72.
(A) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (C) 76. (B) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (C) 81. (C) 82. (D) 83.
(C) 84. (D) 85. (A) 86. (D) 87. (A) 88. (D) 89. (A) 90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (A) 93. (A) 94.
(B) 95. (D) 96. (B) 97. (B) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (A)
Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Exam 2013 Question Paper
(Fully Solved)
1. Which one of the numbers divisible by 25 ? (A) 303310 (B) 373355 (C) 303375 (D) 22040
2. Find the sum of
1 1 + , 2 —)
+...
n+1 n+1, ( n
1 n +1
+ 1
n 3+1
is
1 (A) n (B)n (C) (n + 1) (D) 2 — + 1) 3. In a class there are z students. Out of them
x are boys. What part of the class is composed of girls ?
(A) —z (C) 1— z
4. If the students of 9th class are arranged in rows of 6, 8, 12 or 16, no student is
left behind. Then the possible number of students in the class is (A) 60 (B) 72 (C) 80
(D) 96 5. The unit digit in 3 x 38 x 537 x 1256 is (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 8 6. If a clock
strikes appropriate number of times at each hour, how many times will it strike in a day ?
(A) 300 (B) 156 (C) 68 (D) 78 7. When 335 is added to 5A7, the result is 8B2. 8B2 is
divisible by 3. What is the largest possible value of A ? (A) 8 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4 8.
The greatest 4-digit number exactly divisible by 10, 15, 20 is (A) 9990 (B) 9960 (C) 9980
(D) 9995 9. If x men can do a piece of work in x days, then the number of days in which
y men can do the same work is
(A) xy days
2
(B) -- days
QUANTITATIVE ABILITIES
(C) —x2 days •
(D) x2y days
10. Three persons undertake to complete a piece of work for Rs. 1,200. The first person
can complete the work in 8 days, second person in 12 days and third person in 16 days.
They complete the work with the help of a fourth person in 3 days. What does the fourth
person get ? (A) Rs. 180 (B) Rs. 200 (C) Rs. 225 (D) Rs. 250 11. Two workers A and B
working together completed a job in 5 days. If A worked twice as efficiently as he
actually 1 did and B worked —3 as efficiently as he actually did, the work would have
been completed in 3 days. To complete the job alone, A would require A 51 days
(B) 6 1 -- days 5 4 (C) 71 days 2 (D) 8 4 days 12. A can do a piece of work in 20 days
and B in 30 days. They work together for 7 days and then both leave the work. Then C alone
finishes the remaining work in 10 days. In how many days will C finish the full work?
(A) 25 days (B) 30 days (C) 24 days (D) 20 days 13. Find the value of
1130 + V30+ V30 +... (A) 5 (B) 31/17 (C) 6 (D) 7 14. The odd term in the sequence 0, 7,
26, 63, 124, 217 is (A) 217 (B) 7 (C) 26 (D) 63 15. The marked price of a piano was
Rs. 15,000. At the time of sale, there were successive discounts of 20%, 10% and 10%
respectively on it. The sale price was (A) Rs. 9,720 (B) Rs. 9,750 (C) Rs. 9,760
(D) Rs. 9,780 16. Sunil completes a work in 4 days, whereas Dinesh completes the work in
1 6 days. Ramesh works 1-2 times as fast as Sunil. The three together can complete the
work in (A) 11- days (B) 1-5 days 12 7 (C) 12 days (D) 1 5 days 8 19 17. A farmer can
plough a field working 6 hours per day in 1Vdays. The worker has to work how many hours
per day to finish the same work in 12 days ? (A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 13 18. Two successive
discounts of a% and b% on the marked price of an article are equivalent to the single
discount of (A) (a + b) °/0 , ab A a + D ----)7o 100 a + b (C) 100
alb b (D) 0/0 2 19. A tradesman marks his goods 30% more than the cost price. If he
allows a discount of 64% then his gain percent
is
(B) 22%
(D) 30%
20. A shopkeeper purchased a chair marked at Rs. 600 at two successive discounts of
15% and 20% respectively. He spent Rs. 28 on transportation and sold the chair for
Rs. 545. His gain percent was (A) 25% (B) 30% (C) 35% (D) 20% 21. Three numbers are in
the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. If the sum of their squares is 1856, then the numbers are
(A) 8, 12 and 16 (B) 16, 24 and 32 (C) 12, 18 and 24(D) None of these
22. If x runs are scored by A, y runs by B and z runs by C, then x : y = y : = 3 : 2.
If total number of runs scored by A, B and C is 342, the runs scored by each wntild he
respectively (A) 144, 96, 64 (B) 162, 108, 72 (C) 180, 120, 80 (D) 189, 126, 84 23.
Rs. 900 is divided among A, B, C; 1 the division is such that —2 of As money 3 rd of
Bs money = 4 th of Cs
money. Find the amount (in Rs.) received by A, B, C. (A) 300, 400, 200 (B) 350, 450, 100
(C) 200, 300, 400 (D) 400, 150, 350 24. If Rs. 126.50 is divided among A, B and C in the
ratio of 2 : 5 : 4, the share of B exceeds that of A by (A) Rs. 36.50 (B) Rs. 35.50
(C) Rs. 34.50 (D) Rs. 33.50 25. The average of first three numbers is double of the fourth
number. If the average of all the four numbers is 12, find the 4th number.
(A) 16
32. If the average of 6 consecutive even numbers is 25, the difference between the largest
and the smallest number is (A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14 33. A train goes from Ballygunge to
Sealdah at an average speed of 20 km/ hour and comes back at an average speed of
30 km/hour. The average speed of the train for the whole journey is (A) 27 km/hr
(B) 26 km/hr (C) 25 km/hr (D) 24 km/hr 34. The arithmetic mean of 100 observations is 24,
6 is added to each of the observations and then each of them is multiplied by 2.5. Find
the new arithmetic mean. (A) 30 (B) 75 (C) 35 (D) 60 35. Sourav purchased 30 kg of rice at
the rate of Rs. 10 per kg and 35 kg at the rate of Rs. 11 per kg. He mixed the two.
At what price per kg (in Rs.) should he sell the mixture to make a 30% profit in the
transaction ? (A) 12.5 (B) 13 (C) 13.7 (D) 14.25
(C) 20
26. The third proportional of 12 and 18 is (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 27 (D) 144 27. Ram got twice as
many marks in English as in Science. His total marks in English, Science and Maths
are 180. If the ratio of his marks in English and Maths is 2 : 3, what are his marks
in Science ? (A) 30 (B) (C) 72 (D) 90 28. Sachin Tendulkar has a certain average for
11 innings. In the 12th innings he scores 120 runs and thereby increases his average by
5 runs, His new average is (A) 60 (B) 62 (C) 65 (D) 66 29. The average of 11 results is
50. If the average of the first six results is 49 and that of the last six is 52, the
sixth result is (A) 48 (B) 50 (C) 52 (D) 56 30. By selling 25 metres of cloth a trader
gains the selling price of 5 metres of cloth. The gain of the trader in % is (A) 25
(B) 20 (C) 28 (D) 29 31. A sells a suitcase to B at 10% profit. B sells it to C at
30% profit. If C pays. Rs. 2,860 for it, then the price at which A bought it is
(A) Rs. 1,000 (B) Rs. 1,600 (C) Rs. 2,000 (D) Rs. 2,500
36. A number increased by gives 98. The number is (A) 45 (B) 18 (C) 80 (D) 81 37. Two
items A and B are sold at a profit of 10% and 15% respectively. If the amount of profit
received is the same, then the cost price of A and B may be (A) Rs. 1,000, Rs. 1,500
(B) Rs. 5,000, Rs. 2,000 (C) Rs. 3,000, Rs. 2,000 (D) Rs. 3,000, Rs. 5,000 38. In an
examination A got 25% marks more than B, B got 10% less than C and C got 25% more than D.
If D got 320 marks out of 500, the marks obtained by A were (A) 405 (B) 450 (C) 360
(D) 400 39. Gita buys a plot of land for 2 Rs. 96,000. She sells —5 of it at a loss of
6%. She wants to make a profit of 10°/0 on the whole transaction by selling the remaining
land. The gain % on the remaining land is
22 1 — 2
(A) 20 (B) 202 3 (C) 14 (D) 7 40. An article is sold at a gain of 15%. Had it been sold
for Rs. 27 more, the profit would have been 20%. The cost price of the article is
(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 700 (C) Rs. 540 (D) Rs. 545
41. On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls.
The cost price (in Rs.) of a ball is (A) 45 (B) 50 (C) 55 (D) 60 42. The distance between
places A and B is 999 km. An express train leaves place A at 6 am and runs at a speed
of 55.5 km/hr. The train stops on the way for 1 hour 20 minutes. It reaches B at
(A) 1.20 am (B) 12 pm (C) 6 pm (D) 11 pm 43. If a boy walks from his house to school
at the rate of 4 km per hour, he reaches the school 10 minutes earlier than the scheduled
time. However, if he walks at the rate of 3 km per hour, he reaches 10 minutes late.
Find the distance of his school from his house. (A) 5 km (B) 4 km (C) 6 km (D) 4.5 km 44.
Two trains are running at 40 km/ hr and 20 km/hr respectively in the same direction.
The fast train completely passes a man sitting in thic slow train in 5 seconds. The length
of thefast train is (A) 23-2 m 9 (C) 27-7 m 9 45. The compound interest on Rs. 5,000 for
3 years at 10% p.a. will amount to (A) Rs. 1,654 (B) Rs. 1,655 (C) Rs. 1,600
(D) Rs. 1,565 46. Three sets of 40, 50 and 60 students appeared for an examination and
the pass percentage was 100, 90 and $0 respectively. The pass percentage of the whole set
is (A) 88 —3 (B) 84 3 (C) 881 (D) 84 3 3 47. A certain distance is covered by a cyclist
at a certain speed. If a jogger covers half the distance in double the time, the ratio of
the speed of the jogger to that of the cyclist is (A) 1 : 4 (13) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2
(D) 2 : 1 48. If a sum of money compounded annually becomes 1.44 times of itself in 2
years, then the rate of interest per annum is (A) 25% (B) 22% (C) 21% (D) 20% 49.
A lawn is in the form of a rectangle having its breadth and length in the ratio 3 : 4.
The area of the lawn 1 is —12 hectare. The breadth of the lawn is (A) 25 metres
(B) 50 metres (C) 75 metres (D) 100 metres
(B) 27 m
(D) 23 m
50. A right circular cone is 3.6 cm high and radius of its base is 1.6 cm. It is melted
and recast into a right circular cone with radius of its base as 1.2 cm. Then the height
of the cone (in cm) is (A) 3.6 (B) 4.8 (C) 6.4 (D) 7.2 51. The area of a rectangle is
thrice that of a square. The length of the rectangle is 20 cm and the breadth of 3 the
rectangle is -2 times that of the side of the square. The side of the square, in cm, is
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 60 52. What sum will give Rs. 244 as the difference between
simple interest and compound interest at 10% in 112 years compounded half yearly ?
(A) Rs. 40,000 (B) Rs. 36,000 (C) Rs. 32,000 (D) Rs. 28,000 53. A sum of Rs. 3,200
invested at 10% p.a. compounded quarterly amounts to Rs. 3,362. Compute the time period.
1 (A) -2 year (B) 1 year
3 (C) 2 years (D) -4 year 54. The diagonals of a rhombus are 12 cm and 16 cm respectively.
The length of one side is (A) 8 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 12 cm 55. A rectangular block
of metal has dimensions 21 cm, 77 cm and 24 cm. The block has been melted into a sphere.
The radius of the sphere is (Take It as
7 ) (A) 21 cm (B) 7 cm (C) 14 cm (D) 28 cm 56. If h, c, v are respectively the height,
curved surface area and volume of a right circular cone, then the value of 3icvh3 - C2h2
9v2 is (A) 2 (B) - 1 (C) 1 (D) 0 57. The volume of a conical tent is 1232 cu. m and the
area of its base is 154 sq. m. Find the length of the canvas required to build the tent,
if the canvas 22 is 2 m in width. (Take TC as 7) (A) 270 m (B) 272 m (C) 276 m
(D) 275 m 58. Assume that a drop of water is spherical and its diameter is one-tenth of
a cm. A conical glass has a height equal to the diameter of its rim. If 32,000 drops of
water fill the glass completely, then the height of the glass, in cm, is (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
59. The total number of spherical bullets, each of diameter 5 decimeter, that can be made
by utilising the maximum of a rectangular block of lead with 11 metre length, 10 metre
breadth and 5 metre width is (assume that > 3) (A) equal to 8800 (B) less than 8800
(C) equal to 8400 (D) greater than 9000 60. The area of an equilateral triangle is 9j m2.
The length (in m) of the median is (A) 21/3 (B) 3.5 (C) (D) 61. If each edge of a cube
is increased by 50%, the percentage increase in surface area is (A) 125% (B) 50%
(C) 100% (D) 75% 62. How many tiles, each 4 decimetre square, will be required to cover
the floor of a room 8 m long and 6 m broad ? (A) 200 (B) 260 (C) 280 (D) 300 63. If the
surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio 4 : 9, then the ratio of their volumes will
be (A) 4 : 9 (B) 16 : 27 (C) 8 : 27 (D) 16 : 9 64. If x = y = 333 and z = 334, then the
values of X3 + y3 + z3 - 3xyz is (A) 0 (B) 667 (C) 1000 (D) 2334 x - a 2 X b 2 x - c 2 65.
If , + = 4 b+c c+a a+b (a + b + c) then x is equal to (A) (a + b + c) (B) a2 + b2 + C2
(C) ab + be + ca A a2 + b2 + c2 - ab - bc - ca 66. If a right circular cone of height
24 cm has a volume of 1232 cm3, then the area (in cm2) of curve surface is (A) 550 (B) 704
(C) 924 (D) 1254 67. The diameter of a circular wheel is 7 m. How many revolutions will
it make in travelling 22 km ? (A) 100 (B) 400 (C) 500 (D) 1000 68. The value of
V2 V4 V2 J4 V2 V4 (A) 2 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 25 69. The value of j 1W+J) (J+J)±(543)/ is
(A) NE (B) 0 (C) 4 (D)
is
•
70. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 2 (a - b - c) - 3, then the value of 4a - 3b + 5c is (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 6 71. If 2x + 2 - = 3, then the value of
3 • + Z is
x
9 (A) - 8 7
(C) 8 (D) 11 72. Out of the given responses, one of the factors of (a - b2)3 + (32 c2)3 +
(c2 - a2)3 is (A) (a + b) (a - b) (B) (a + b) (a + b) (C) (a - b) (a - b) (D) (b - c)
(b - c) 73. If (x - a) (x - b)= 1 and a - b + 5 = 0, then the value of, 3 1 (x-a1 (x-a)3
is (A) -125 (B) 1 (C) 125 (D) 140
74. If j = j, then the value of x2 - 16x + 6 is (A) 0 (B) -2 (C) 2 (D) 4 75. LA, LB,
LC are three angles of a triangle. If LA - LB = 150, LB -LC = 30°, then LA, LB and GC are
(A) 80°, 60°, 40° (B) 70°, 50°, 60° (C) 80°, 65°, 35° (D) 80°, 55°, 45° 76. If ABC is an
equilateral triangle and D is a point on BC such that AD 1 BC, then (A) AB : BD = 1 : 1
(B) AB : BD = 1 : 2 (C) AB : BD = 2 : 1 (D) AB : BD = 3 : 2 77. AABC is an isosceles
triangle and AB = AC = 2a-unit, BC = a unit. Draw
AD 1 BC, and find the length of .AD.
(A) 11-5 a unit
(C) 17 a unit
(B)
(D) 2 78. All sides of a quadrilateral ABCD touch a circle. If AB = 6 cm, BC = 7.5 cm,
CD = 3 cm, then DA is (A) 3.5 cm (B) 4.5 cm (C) 2.5 cm (D) 1.5 cm 79. If x = j+ 2, then
the value of x3 - 6x2 + 12x - 13 is (A) -1 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
2 .N/17
a unit
a unit
80. A tower standing on a horizontal plane subtends a certain angle at a point 160 m
apart from the foot of the tower. On advancing 100 m towards it, the tower is found to
subtend an angle twice as before. The height of the tower is (A) 80 m (B) 100 rn (C) 160 m
(D) 200 m 81. Let C be a point on a straight line AB. Circles are drawn with diameters AC
and AB. Let P be any point on the circumference of the circle with diameter AB. If AP
meets the other circle at Q, then (A) QC II PB (B) QC is never parallel to PB 1
(C) QC = PB (D) QC 11 PB and QC =2 PB 82. In a right-angled triangle, the product of
two sides is equal to half of the square of the third side, i.e., hypotenuse. One of the
acute angles must be (A) 60° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 15° 83. If two concentric circles are
of radii 5 cm and 3 cm, then the length of the chord of the larger circle which touches
the smaller circle is (A) 6 cm (B) 7 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 8 cm 84. Inside a square ABCD,
ABEC is an equilateral triangle. If CE and BD intersect at 0, then LBOC is equal to
(A) 60° (B) 75° (C) 90° (D) 120° 85. A point D is taken from the side BC of a right-angled
triangle ABC, where AB is hypotenuse. Then (A) AB2 + CD2 = BC2 + AD2 (B) CD2 + BD2 = 2 AD2
(C) AB2 + AC2 = 2 AD2 (D) AB2 = AD2 + BD2 86. D and E are two points on the sides AC and
BC respectively of dABC such that DE = 18 cm, CE = 5 cm and LDEC = 90°. If tan LABC = 3.6,
then AC: CD = (A) BC : 2 CE (B) 2 CE : BC (C) 2 BC : CE (D) CE : 2 BC 87. D is a point on
the side BC of a triangle ABC such that AD 1 BC. E is a point on AD for which AE : ED = 5 :
1. If LBAD = 30° and tan (LACB) = 6 tan (LDBE), then LACB = (A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60°
(D) 15° 88. If sine + cos 0 = cos 0, then the value of (cos 0 - sin 0) is (A) ../3 cos 0
(B) 1/3 sin 0 (C) .5 cos 0 (D) -N5 sin0
126
89. An isosceles triangle ABC is right-angled at B. D is a point inside the triangle ABC.
P and Q are the feet of the perpendiculars drawn from D on the sides AB and AC
respectively of LABC. If AP = a cm, AQ = b cm and LBAD = 15°, sin 75° =
2b (A) vi a -sh a (C) 2b
a (B)
2a
(D) b
90. Each interior angle of a regular octagon in radians is
37t
4
91. If rsin 0 =1,rcos 0 =„ii, the value of Ot
| 
